Many pentecostal churches teach that speaking in tongues is a heavenly language, the tongues of angels. Is this what the Bible shows? Where does this teaching originate from?
The Greek words used in the New Testament for tongues, when used in relation to speaking, simply meant language. The Greek glossa means tongue, language, and the verb laleo means to speak, producing the word glossolalia. This always refered to an earthly or known language.
There is only one verse in the Bible that mentions the tongues of angels. It is 1 Corinthians 13:1(KJV) Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal. Is Paul really saying that he speaks in the tongues of angels? This verse needs to be viewed in context and also in relation to the translation from the Greek. The word that has been translated to though when translated and used in over 95% of all other places in the New Testament, has been more correctly translated to if. Other Versions of the Bible do translate this correctly to if I spoke in the tongues men and angels.
Regardless of this mistranslation, merely reading the following...
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